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Assuming that
X can have a causal relation with Y, while conceptually changing the value of X doesn’t change the value of Y
does it
support
that
The meaning of "X is orthogonal to Y" shouldn't imply X can’t have a causal relation with Y?
2
1
posted Mar 23, 2022
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Yes, because ...
2
X being orthogonal to Y should mean that conceptually changing the value of X doesn’t change the value of Y
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