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Assuming that
A common definition for "orthogonal" is "statistically independent"
does it
support
that
The meaning of "X is orthogonal to Y" should imply X can’t have a causal relation with Y?
1
2
posted Mar 24, 2022
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Yes, because ...
1
Two events are independent if the occurrence of one event does not affect the chances of the occurrence of the other
2
0
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No, because ...
0
The first and second element of the couples (x, pseudoRandom(x)) will be statistically independent while causally linked
0
1
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